Continue with the picture-matching task for an ambiguous prepositional phrase. Let a response of one mean that the participant selects the picture corresponding to verb-phrase attachment, and let \Pi be this participant’s response probability across the declared item set. Suppose the observed responses \mathbf{x} produce the posterior
The posterior describes uncertainty about the participant’s response probability under this model. For compactness, later expressions use conditioning on \mathbf{x} as shorthand for conditioning on the event \mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x}. But another block records responses, not parameter values. A posterior predictive distribution describes those possible responses that have not yet been observed; the Stan User’s Guide gives the corresponding integral and simulation procedure.
Averaging over parameter uncertainty
Let \widetilde{X} denote a future binary response. Conditional on a fixed parameter value,
The probability mass inside the integral describes a possible future response at a fixed \pi. The posterior density supplies the weight assigned to each value of \pi after observing \mathbf{x}.
Though the prediction equals the posterior mean for one Bernoulli response, this equality does not make the posterior and predictive distributions identical. The posterior is continuous on (0,1), while the future response is either zero or one.
Predicting a future block
Now let \widetilde{K} be the number of verb-phrase attachment responses in a future block of m=20 matched items from the same participant. Conditional on \pi,
The posterior predictive distribution is beta-binomial because it averages the binomial probability over a beta posterior. We can sample from it in two steps:
The posterior predictive distribution is more dispersed than a binomial distribution that fixes \pi=.75 because it mixes over posterior uncertainty about \Pi.
For this beta-binomial distribution, the predictive variance is
The difference between these two variances is 2.85. To understand that difference correctly, we next separate the posterior predictive variance into its two components.
The first term averages future response variation over the posterior, while the second measures how much the conditional mean 20\Pi varies across the posterior. In the current example, the two terms are
Their sum is 6.60. The plug-in variance 20(.75)(.25)=3.75 is not exactly the first component: evaluating the concave function 20\pi(1-\pi) at the posterior mean gives a slightly larger value than averaging it over the posterior. More importantly, the plug-in distribution omits the second component entirely. It is thus too narrow in this example.
Keeping prediction and checking separate
A posterior predictive distribution says what the fitted model predicts after observing the data. It does not establish that those predictions resemble relevant features of the observed data. Posterior predictive checking later compares simulated and observed summaries to assess model adequacy.
A future observation must also match the population and measurement process represented by the observation model. Prediction for a new trial from the same participant differs from prediction for a new participant when participants vary. The symbol \widetilde{X} should be defined with the same care as the original response.
We use a tilde for a genuinely future response. Later, \mathbf{X}^{\mathrm{rep}} will denote a replicated dataset generated under the design of the observed \mathbf{x} for a posterior predictive check. Both use the posterior predictive distribution, but they answer different questions.
Monte Carlo error is separate again: using more simulated draws makes a computed predictive probability more stable, but it does not reduce posterior uncertainty or future response variation.
Check your understanding
What is the support of \Pi\mid\mathbf{x}?
What is the support of \widetilde{K} for a block of 20 responses?
Which source of predictive variance is lost by setting \pi=.75 for every future block?
Why does increasing the number of simulation draws not make future responses less variable?
This beta-binomial prediction is available algebraically because the posterior is conjugate. The next page asks what remains possible when the posterior does not belong to a familiar family.
---title: "Posterior predictive distributions"---The [prior predictive distribution](prior-predictive-distributions.qmd) averaged the observation model over the prior. A posterior predictive distribution performs the same averaging over the [posterior distribution](posterior-distributions.qmd).Continue with the picture-matching task for an ambiguous prepositional phrase. Let a response of one mean that the participant selects the picture corresponding to verb-phrase attachment, and let $\Pi$ be this participant's response probability across the declared item set. Suppose the observed responses $\mathbf{x}$ produce the posterior$$\Pi\mid\mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x}\sim\operatorname{Beta}(18,6).$$The posterior describes uncertainty about the participant's response probability under this model. For compactness, later expressions use conditioning on $\mathbf{x}$ as shorthand for conditioning on the event $\mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x}$. But another block records responses, not parameter values. A [**posterior predictive distribution**](https://bruno.nicenboim.me/bayescogsci/ch-introBDA.html) describes those possible responses that have not yet been observed; the [Stan User's Guide](https://mc-stan.org/docs/stan-users-guide/posterior-predictive-checks.html#simulating-from-the-posterior-predictive-distribution) gives the corresponding integral and simulation procedure.## Averaging over parameter uncertaintyLet $\widetilde{X}$ denote a future binary response. Conditional on a fixed parameter value,$$\widetilde{X}\mid\Pi=\pi\sim\operatorname{Bernoulli}(\pi).$$Because $\pi$ is not known, prediction averages this observation model over the posterior:$$\mathbb{P}(\widetilde{X}=\widetilde{x}\mid\mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x})=\int\mathbb{P}(\widetilde{X}=\widetilde{x}\mid\Pi=\pi)f_{\Pi\mid\mathbf{X}}(\pi\mid\mathbf{x})\,\mathrm{d}\pi.$$The probability mass inside the integral describes a possible future response at a fixed $\pi$. The posterior density supplies the weight assigned to each value of $\pi$ after observing $\mathbf{x}$.For one future success,$$\begin{aligned}\mathbb{P}(\widetilde{X}=1\mid\mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x})&=\int \pi f_{\Pi\mid\mathbf{X}}(\pi\mid\mathbf{x})\,\mathrm{d}\pi\\&=\mathbb{E}[\Pi\mid\mathbf{X}=\mathbf{x}]\\&=\frac{18}{18+6}\\&=.75.\end{aligned}$$Though the prediction equals the posterior mean for one Bernoulli response, this equality does not make the posterior and predictive distributions identical. The posterior is continuous on $(0,1)$, while the future response is either zero or one.## Predicting a future blockNow let $\widetilde{K}$ be the number of verb-phrase attachment responses in a future block of $m=20$ matched items from the same participant. Conditional on $\pi$,$$\widetilde{K}\mid\Pi=\pi\sim\operatorname{Binomial}(20,\pi).$$The posterior predictive distribution is beta-binomial because it averages the binomial probability over a beta posterior. We can sample from it in two steps:1. Draw $\pi^{(s)}\sim\operatorname{Beta}(18,6)$.2. Draw $\widetilde{k}^{(s)}\sim\operatorname{Binomial}(20,\pi^{(s)})$.```{r}#| label: posterior-predictive-parse-count#| echo: trueset.seed(722)draw_count <-100000pi_draw <-rbeta(draw_count, shape1 =18, shape2 =6)future_count <-rbinom(draw_count, size =20, prob = pi_draw)predictive_mean <-20*18/ (18+6)simulated_mean <-mean(future_count)stopifnot(abs(simulated_mean - predictive_mean) < .05)c(analytic_mean = predictive_mean,simulated_mean = simulated_mean,quantile(future_count, c(.025, .5, .975)))```The analytic predictive mean is$$\mathbb{E}[\widetilde{K}\mid\mathbf{x}]=20(.75)=15.$$The posterior predictive distribution is more dispersed than a binomial distribution that fixes $\pi=.75$ because it mixes over posterior uncertainty about $\Pi$.For this beta-binomial distribution, the predictive variance is$$\operatorname{Var}(\widetilde{K}\mid\mathbf{x})=20\frac{18(6)}{(18+6)^2}\frac{18+6+20}{18+6+1}=6.60.$$If we fix $\pi=.75$, the binomial variance is only$$20(.75)(.25)=3.75.$$The difference between these two variances is $2.85$. To understand that difference correctly, we next separate the posterior predictive variance into its two components.```{r}#| label: posterior-predictive-variance#| echo: trueanalytic_variance <-20*18*6* (18+6+20) / ((18+6)^2* (18+6+1))plug_in_variance <-20* .75* .25posterior_variance_pi <-18*6/ ((18+6)^2* (18+6+1))mean_conditional_variance <-20* (.75* .25- posterior_variance_pi)variance_conditional_mean <-20^2* posterior_variance_pistopifnot(abs(analytic_variance -6.60) <1e-12)stopifnot(abs(var(future_count) - analytic_variance) < .10)stopifnot(abs(mean_conditional_variance -3.60) <1e-12)stopifnot(abs(variance_conditional_mean -3.00) <1e-12)c(full_prediction = analytic_variance,fixed_parameter = plug_in_variance,mean_conditional_variance = mean_conditional_variance,variance_conditional_mean = variance_conditional_mean)```## Separating two sources of predictive spreadThe law of total variance gives$$\operatorname{Var}(\widetilde{K}\mid\mathbf{x})=\mathbb{E}\left[\operatorname{Var}(\widetilde{K}\mid\Pi,\mathbf{x})\mid\mathbf{x}\right]+\operatorname{Var}\left(\mathbb{E}[\widetilde{K}\mid\Pi,\mathbf{x}]\mid\mathbf{x}\right).$$The first term averages future response variation over the posterior, while the second measures how much the conditional mean $20\Pi$ varies across the posterior. In the current example, the two terms are$$\begin{aligned}\mathbb{E}\left[20\Pi(1-\Pi)\mid\mathbf{x}\right]&=3.60,\\\operatorname{Var}(20\Pi\mid\mathbf{x})&=3.00.\end{aligned}$$Their sum is $6.60$. The plug-in variance $20(.75)(.25)=3.75$ is not exactly the first component: evaluating the concave function $20\pi(1-\pi)$ at the posterior mean gives a slightly larger value than averaging it over the posterior. More importantly, the plug-in distribution omits the second component entirely. It is thus too narrow in this example.## Keeping prediction and checking separateA posterior predictive distribution says what the fitted model predicts after observing the data. It does not establish that those predictions resemble relevant features of the observed data. [Posterior predictive checking](posterior-predictive-checks.qmd) later compares simulated and observed summaries to assess model adequacy.A future observation must also match the population and measurement process represented by the observation model. Prediction for a new trial from the same participant differs from prediction for a new participant when participants vary. The symbol $\widetilde{X}$ should be defined with the same care as the original response.We use a tilde for a genuinely future response. Later, $\mathbf{X}^{\mathrm{rep}}$ will denote a replicated dataset generated under the design of the observed $\mathbf{x}$ for a posterior predictive check. Both use the posterior predictive distribution, but they answer different questions.Monte Carlo error is separate again: using more simulated draws makes a computed predictive probability more stable, but it does not reduce posterior uncertainty or future response variation.## Check your understanding1. What is the support of $\Pi\mid\mathbf{x}$?2. What is the support of $\widetilde{K}$ for a block of 20 responses?3. Which source of predictive variance is lost by setting $\pi=.75$ for every future block?4. Why does increasing the number of simulation draws not make future responses less variable?This beta-binomial prediction is available algebraically because the posterior is conjugate. The [next page](beyond-conjugacy.qmd) asks what remains possible when the posterior does not belong to a familiar family.